Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 02:22
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Has anyone ever made you take off your shirt?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Why do Argentinians use "vos" instead of "tú" in informal speech?
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Is the Trump-Zelenskyy meeting a preview of what the US is going to do to Taiwan?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.